-23-
Letters
ON THE PERMISSIVE WILL OF GOD
Dear G. B.
August 13, 1991
...There is absolutely no
Scripture that teaches God has a permissive will. Consider the
fact that if the perfect will of God is not effected, but only
His "permissive" will is done, then God is not perfect.
Consider the prayer of Isaiah: "O Lord, why hast thou made us to
err from thy ways, and hardened our heart from thy fear"
(63:17)? The Word of God is perspicuous, and Isaiah had no
difficulty accepting this as sound doctrine. This is the
testimony left us by the Holy Spirit who carried along the
writers of Scripture.
How then can we
reconcile this with those who say that God is not the author of
sin? The only way is to make a distinction between God being the
Creator of it, and His being held liable for the effects of it.
For instance, man cannot blame God for his own guiltiness.
Otherwise, man could not be judged. However, John testifies,
"All things were made by him and without him was not anything
made that was made."
Men always get into trouble
when they think they can reason the nature and character of God,
because then they try to harmonize what cannot in this world be
harmonized. Yes, it is within God's character to prevent sin,
but it is also true that Isaiah realized that it was God Himself
who had made Israel to err from His ways.
If this is too tough to handle,
consider II Samuel 24:1: "And again the anger of the Lord was
kindled against Israel, and He (note it) moved David against
them to say, `Go number Israel and Judah.'" Compare this with I
Chronicles 21:1: "And Satan stood up against Israel and provoked
David to number Israel." This thing was sin to David, and God
punished him and the people for David's numbering Israel. Now,
no man can blame God for the perfidy in his heart. No one can
make excuse for his sin; but God is sovereign, and man cannot
breathe if God shuts off his air supply.
Satan is God's most obedient
servant. He does as he was created to do. "I have created the
waster to destroy" (Isaiah 54:16). Note, I.) Of Whom the verse
speaks—"I"—identified in verse 10 as "the Lord that hath mercy
on thee." II.) What it is He has done—"I have created the
waster"—whether we apply this to them that are given to the work
of destruction, or to Apollyon who is their leader, the truth is
the same. III.) For what purpose has the Lord created the
waster?—"I have created the waster to destroy." The fact that
Satan was not always evil is a non-issue. The fact remains: God
created the waster to do the work of destruction.
The reason is given in Proverbs
16:4: "The Lord hath made all things for himself: yea, even the
wicked for the day of evil." I.) Of whom the verse speaks—"The
Lord." II.) What it is He has done—"The Lord has made all
things." III.) For what purpose He has done this—"The Lord hath
made all things for himself." IV.) What about the wicked?—"Yea,
even the wicked." V.) For what reason has He made the
wicked?—"For the day of evil, i.e. for judgment."
Consider again I Samuel 16:23 and Isaiah
45:7. "And it came to pass when the evil spirit from God came
upon Saul, that David took an harp and played with his hand ..."
Here, Scripture clearly teaches that the spirit that came upon
Saul was evil when it proceeded from God. And again, "I form the
light and create darkness: I make peace and create evil: I the
Lord do all these things."
When sub-lapsarians cannot handle
the doctrine of reprobation, they speak of God electing some to
salvation, and then "passing by" others. God is not passive in
the workings of His creation, but, with God, even His passivity
is active.
This is the reason that E. W. J.
refers to the crucifixion of the Son of God as God's permissive
will. Yet, Acts 2:23 clearly enunciates the fact that Christ's
deliverance was according to the "determinate counsel and
foreknowledge" of God. This was the will of God; and Jesus "was
slain before the foundation of the world" (Revelation 13:8).
Also, do consider II Chronicles
18:19, where the Lord asked, "Who shall entice Ahab, king of
Israel, that he may go up and fall at Ramoth-Gilead?" Did not
the Lord "entice" the king to his destruction? Yet, the king was
responsible for his actions; and God designed the king's fall on
account of the king's sins.
Proof that the Lord sent the
lying spirit to entice Ahab that he might fall is found in
verses 20 and 21, and which is concluded with these words: "And
the Lord said, `Thou shalt entice him, and thou shalt also
prevail. Go out, and do even so." This is what Micaiah declares
in verse 23: "Now, therefore, behold the Lord hath put a lying
spirit in the mouth of these thy prophets, and the Lord hath
spoken evil against thee."
You state that you find no
statement in the Genesis account of creation that says, "Let
there be sin!" I ask, "On what day of creation was the Tree of
Knowledge of Good and Evil created? Was it not created along
with the other trees on the third day?"
God is holy is all His works.
Therefore, sinfulness proceeds from the creature; but God is the
Creator of good and evil (Isaiah 45:7). Nor does this make God
evil because God is not bound by His Law. For instance, when God
takes a man's life, no one can accuse Him of murder. and, when
He takes a man's wealth, no one can charge Him with stealing.
"For this man was counted worthy of more glory than Moses,
inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than
the house" (Hebrews 3:3).
Must go. ...I trust you are well,
and that the Lord will give you much fruit that will redound to
His glory.
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